The Growth Mask
Fresh policies dilute mature-vintage losses.
Cohort development
Incremental payout ratio as each vintage ages.
Loss-development triangle
| Vintage | Year 1 | Year 2 | Year 3 | Ultimate |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| C12,500 sold | 44% | 62% | 75% | 59% |
| C25,500 sold | 44% | 55% | 64% | 53% |
| C312,100 sold | 43% | 59% | 68% | 56% |
| C426,620 sold | 43% | 57% | 67% | 54% |
| C558,564 sold | 43% | 58% | 66% | 55% |
Positive payout distribution
24% frequency
Capital at risk
What the balance sheet absorbs without risk transfer.
MODEL NOTES Methodology & limitations+
Premium path
Each property begins at a baseline premium dispersed uniformly from 70% to 130% of the selected baseline. Its annual renewal combines realized market trend, a constant adverse-selection drift, normally distributed property-level noise, and an occasional shock; annual declines are clamped at −10%.
Pricing rule
The forecaster is assumed unbiased on the market trend and blind to selection and shocks — that wedge is what this toy explores. The threshold compounds the initial premium by priced trend plus buffer for each of three coverage years.
Cash & development
Net fees are collected at the start of each active coverage year; payouts settle at year-end. Incremental ratio is that year's payout divided by that year's net fee. Ultimate ratio is all three years' payouts divided by all three years' net fees. Blended ratio pools the cohorts active in a calendar year.
Churn & risk
Policies may lapse before years 2 and 3. Churn truncates the worst tail, since year-3 payouts are the largest. Capital at risk is the worst cumulative cash position across seven calendar years, reported at P50 and P95 and normalized per 10,000 policies sold.
The model is simple. The questions are not.
- What do realized payout ratios look like by cohort vintage versus priced thresholds — not blended across a growing book?
- How, and how often, do payout thresholds recalibrate as realized payout data comes in?
- How is the book's premium-growth drift monitored against the market-wide data the model trains on — i.e., how is adverse selection measured, not assumed?
- What share of exposure is correlated (carrier- or state-level repricing), and what does the risk-transfer pipeline look like — reinsurance, capital markets, or balance sheet?
- What's the fee's headroom: how price-elastic is demand relative to the expected-payout cost the model implies?